Differences between Husserl’s Phenomenology and Kant’s Epistemology
- I currently do not understand the differences.
- In fact, I barely understand Kant’s epistemology.
- However, thanks to my research on phenomenology, I can use it as a basis to learn about other philosophies.
- My speculation is as follows:
- Kant assumed that the “thing-in-itself” exists, even if it is unknowable.
- Does this assumption also lead to the assumption that this existence is shared in the world?
- On the other hand, Husserl suspended judgment on that aspect.
- Something like that…?
- Based on what I saw on unreliable sources like Yahoo Answers or Quora, it seems like my understanding above is correct (blu3mo).
- I will research it properly later.
- Based on what I saw on unreliable sources like Yahoo Answers or Quora, it seems like my understanding above is correct (blu3mo).
- Kant assumed that the “thing-in-itself” exists, even if it is unknowable.